cos(z)=0 implies z is real // ChatGPT’s solution

To determine whether $ \cos(z) = 0 $ implies that $ z $ must be real, we analyze the equation using the definition of cosine in the complex domain.


Key Idea: Using the Complex Definition of Cosine

The cosine function for a complex number $ z = x + iy $ (where $ x, y \in \mathbb{R} $) is defined as:
$$
\cos(z) = \frac{e^{iz} + e^{-iz}}{2}.
$$
Substituting $ z = x + iy $:
$$
\cos(z) = \frac{e^{i(x + iy)} + e^{-i(x + iy)}}{2} = \frac{e^{ix}e^{-y} + e^{-ix}e^y}{2}.
$$

Using Euler’s formula ($ e^{ix} = \cos(x) + i\sin(x) $), this expands to:
$$
\cos(z) = \frac{e^{-y}(\cos(x) + i\sin(x)) + e^y(\cos(x) – i\sin(x))}{2}.
$$
Simplify:
$$
\cos(z) = \frac{\cos(x)(e^{-y} + e^y) + i\sin(x)(e^{-y} – e^y)}{2}.
$$

Separate real and imaginary parts:
$$
\cos(z) = \cos(x)\cosh(y) + i\sin(x)\sinh(y).
$$


Analyzing $ \cos(z) = 0 $

For $ \cos(z) = 0 $, both the real and imaginary parts must be zero. That is:

  1. $ \cos(x)\cosh(y) = 0 $ (real part),
  2. $ \sin(x)\sinh(y) = 0 $ (imaginary part).

1. $ \cos(x)\cosh(y) = 0 $:

  • $ \cosh(y) \neq 0 ) for all ( y \in \mathbb{R} ) because ( \cosh(y) = \frac{e^y + e^{-y}}{2} > 0 $.
  • Therefore, $ \cos(x) = 0 $.

2. $ \sin(x)\sinh(y) = 0 $:

  • $ \sinh(y) = 0 $ if and only if $ y = 0 $ because $ \sinh(y) = \frac{e^y – e^{-y}}{2} $.
  • If $ y = 0 $, then $ \sin(x) $ can take any value, satisfying this equation.

Conclusion

  • From the first equation, $ \cos(x) = 0 $, which implies $ x = \frac{\pi}{2} + n\pi $, where $ n \in \mathbb{Z} $.
  • From the second equation, $ \sinh(y) = 0 $, which implies $ y = 0 $.

Thus, $ z = x + iy $ is real, specifically $ z = \frac{\pi}{2} + n\pi $, where $ n \in \mathbb{Z} $.

Therefore, $ \cos(z) = 0 $ implies $ z $ must be real.

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